Wednesday, January 14, 2009

"Saved through Childbearing": Women and Authority in 1 Timothy 2:11-15

Translation

The NIV translates 1 Timothy 2:11-15 as follows:
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15 But women will be saved through childbearing–if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
Translators face several difficulties here:

'Quiet' or 'silent'? - The NIV renders en hesuxia as "in quietness" in v. 11 but as "silent" in v. 12. Both options are grammatically and contextually viable.[2]

'Man/woman' or 'husband/wife'? - The words "man" and "woman" can also mean "husband" and "wife". Andros, however, is not used with the definite article as we would expect if v. 12 meant that a wife cannot "have authority over her husband." That andros is indefinite suggests that a woman is not permitted to teach or have authority over any man, regardless of her relationship to him.

'Have authority', 'domineer', or 'wield influence'? - The NIV translates authentein "to have authority." Ann Bowman allows that it might mean "domineer," but prefers "exercise authority."[3] Andrew Perriman's more complete analysis concludes that there are "two closely related meanings." The first is to perpetrate a crime; the second is to actively wield influence over a person or to initiate an action. The passive idea of having authority appears on the whole to be a later development.[4] "To wield influence over" is probably the best rendering.

'Women' or 'She'? - The NIV refers to "women" in v. 15, but the Greek text actually just says "she". This was an interpretive choice made by the translators.

V. 12 a margin note? - The repetition of en hesuxia in vv. 11 and 12 is redundant, and v. 12 is awkwardly constructed. Since the passage also makes sense without v. 12, Perriman concludes that it was added as an afterthought: a "hastily constructed" marginal note that was later inserted into the body of the text. There is, however, no manuscript evidence to support this theory. Moreover, v. 13 reads better as a justification for the submission of women than for their silence, and thus more naturally follows v. 12 than it does v. 11.

Was there conflict at Ephesus? - Some commentators see in vv. 7-10 an indication that a specific kind of conflict is taking place in Ephesus: the men are debating during prayer and the women are being ostentatious. But this inference goes beyond the evidence. These verses may simply be a negative statement of the positive ideal promoted in v. 2: "That we may live quiet lives in all godliness and holiness."

In light of the above discussion, my modified translation of these verses reads as follows:
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 And I do not permit a woman to teach or to wield influence over a man; she must be in quietness. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15 But she will be saved through childbearing–if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
Commentary

The directive here does not seem to be situational. The first-person pronoun used in v. 12 ("I do not permit") seems to indicate that the directive here is universal. The justification cited for it is also universal. It consists of an appeal to the created order (man was formed first) and to Eve’s great mistake. Her action in the Garden casts suspicion on all women after her.Thus if women speak or "wield influence" over men the way Eve influenced her husband in the Garden, the consequences might be equally disastrous.[5]

It is very possible that the "she" in v. 15 refers to Eve rather than to women in general (though women in general are no doubt included to some degree in Eve as their archetype). Eve was deceived and became a sinner, but now there is a possibility of salvation for her. After her ejection from the Garden she was cursed with pain in childbearing; now childbearing may become the source of her salvation. If "they" (her children, the women) will continue to learn with love, faith, holiness, and propriety, Eve may be vicariously redeemed.

Obviously this passage is absurdly chauvinistic. It's hard to believe that some maintain inerrancy in the face of such patent nonsense. The redemptive thread here lay in the fact that this passage seems to leave the door open for women to be "saved" from the terrible consequences of Eve's mistake. The epistle is explicit that "she"—whether women or their archetype—will be saved if the women will obey his command to learn in quietness. Surely after almost two millennia of quietness, Woman's redemption is accomplished. Surely we ought no longer to fear that she will be deceived again by Satan and lead men astray. And if we have any further doubts, we may perhaps take some comfort in the fact that the writer of the epistle phrased his edict in the first person: "I do not permit a woman to teach or to wield influence over a man." He did not say that God does not permit these things.

NOTES:

[1] Zane C. Hodges, Arthur L. Farstad, and et al., The Greek New Testament According to the Majority Text (Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1982), 627.
[2] Except that "silent" is more literally "in silence."
[3] Ann L. Bowman, "Women in Ministry: An Exegetical Study of 1 Timothy 2:11-15," Bibliotheca Sacra 149, no. 2 (1992): 201.
[4] Andrew C. Perriman, "What Eve Did, What Women Shouldn't Do: The Meaning of Authentew in 1 Timothy 2:12," Tyndale Bulletin 44, no. 1 (1993): 138.
[5] The prohibition against women wielding influence should perhaps be understood as a restriction against female overseers. It does not seem meant to restrict women from all church service, since deaconesses seem to be referred to in 1 Timothy 3:11. See Jennifer H. Stiefel, "Women Deacons in 1 Timothy: A Linguistic Look at 'Women Likewise...' (1 Tim 3.11)," New Testament Studies 41, no. Jl (1995).

8 comments:

Gem said...

I just can't take the leap you did and assume Paul's instruction here was "absurdly chauvanistic". At one point, I made a decision to trust God's good intentions- that HE preserved His Word, and that if I was hearing a put-down of women, the problem was my hearing rather than His Word. So I really dug deep into this passage. I have some of my own ideas... but I'll post two articles- both written by scholarly women- for your consideration of other ways of understanding the teaching in a more positive light:

ANCIENT HERESIES AND A STRANGE GREEK VERB by Kroeger

"Leading Him Up the Garden Path: Further Thoughts on 1 Timothy 2:11-15" by R M Groothuis

Chris said...

Hi again, Gem! The Kroeger article is quite interesting, but appears to hinge almost entirely on the meaning of related nouns rather than on the meaning of the verb itself. She also uses an incidental remark from 2 Timothy to establish context for this passage in 1 Timothy: a more than dubious inference, if you ask me.

I can appreciate the desire for God to have perfectly communicated and preserved his Word to humanity in a convenient, mass-market paperback book available at any Barnes and Noble, but I frankly don't see any particular reason to believe that that is so. The apostles were just as human as we are, with their own writing styles, theological emphases, and even disagreements amongst themselves. My belief is that rather than trying to build our faith on the sheer momentum of their inspiration, we should seek and expect fresh inspiration of our own. That's not to say that we should ignore their experiences and writings, but it is to say that I don't think that they were perfect or that their writings were intended as a comprehensive, divine textbook for the Christian life.

The traditional prooftext for biblical inerrancy, of course, appears in a pseudepigraphal work. It is generally agreed among biblical scholars that 2 Timothy is not genuinely Pauline.

Gem said...

I agree with you that "we should seek and expect fresh inspiration of our own" and that thought even jumped out at me as I was re-reading the larger context of the 1 Corinthians passages you discussed in this series (see bolded):

"But now, brethren, if I come to you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you unless I speak to you either by revelation, by knowledge, by prophesying, or by teaching?" 1 Corinthians 14

I did a word study the veiling of 1 Corinthians 11 and 2 Cor 3. To veil is kalypto.

To pull down the veil is katakalypto (renditions of which occur repeatedly in 1 Cor 11).

To lift up the veil is anakalypto- a conjugation of which occurs in
2 Cor 3:18 "And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect[a] the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness with ever-increasing glory, which comes from the Lord who is the Spirit."

To separate/remove the veil is apokalypto- revelation or "fresh inspiration" as you called it.

Got me to wondering if Paul is speaking metaphorically in 1 Cor 11 where woman and man are metaphors for phases of our Christian walk or phases of glorification. ie. "woman" was me in the place when I was not seeing things very clearly and when I was looking at human authority for guidance and affirmation. "man" is me when that veil is lifted off and I can look directly at Christ for guidance "with unveiled face".

I think the child-bearing of 1 Tim 2:11-15 is a metaphor for the formation of Christ within. Paul uses a similar child birthing metaphor in Gal 4:19.

Personally, I think Paul is very deep and even his contemporary- Peter- said he was hard to understand (2 Peter 3). I hope you will re-consider discounting these passages as uninspired "chauvinism", Chris. Keep digging. I think there's a lot more there than first meets the eye (ie the truth is veiled).

Gem said...

Chris,
You inspired me :)
I worked this up:


Developing a Reading of 1 Timothy 2:11-15 through the grid of Paul’s metaphors.

1 Timothy 2:11-15 (Young’s Literal Translation)

11Let a woman in quietness learn in all subjection,
12and a woman I do not suffer to teach, nor to rule a man, but to be in quietness,
13for Adam was first formed, then Eve,
14and Adam was not deceived, but the woman, having been deceived, into transgression came,
15and she shall be saved through the child-bearing, if they remain in faith, and love, and sanctification, with sobriety.


Paul’s metaphors:

Eve= the church, you and I whether male or female 2 Cor 11:2-3
a woman= a creature of flesh, unrenewed (Gal 3:28, Col 3:9-11); out of whom Christ is birthed (Gal 4:19)
a man= one who has reached maturity, who has given up childish ways, crucified the flesh, been renewed in the mind (verses)
Adam= Jesus is "the last Adam"

A Reading of 1 Timothy 2:11-15 through the grid of Paul’s metaphors.

Let the unrenewed learn in quietness with all subjection.
The unrenewed, I do not permit to teach or have authority over the mature, but to be in quietness.
For Adam (Jesus) was formed first, then Eve (the church/you and I whether male or female).
And Adam (Jesus) was not deceived, but Eve (you and I whether male or female) having been deceived, into transgression came,
and she (you and I whether male or female) will be saved through the child-bearing (the formation of Christ within) if they remain in faith, and love, and sanctification, with sobriety. (Read “they” as the union with the second Adam, so if Eve/church/you and I remain united with CHRIST "in faith, and love... ", she/Eve/church/you and I will be SAVED)

Chris said...

Hi Gem! It's an interesting and creative idea, though I've never been big on allegorical interpretations myself. I suppose that if one must be a biblical inerrantist, I prefer your reading to the old fundamentalist chauvinism!

Dud said...

Hi. I have been reading up on this passage over the net and to be honest I find a number of difficulties.

1. Most interpretations that want this passage to allow women to teach or hold ministries that give them authority over men seem to me to be quite contrived. I am a modern university educated person with all of history, science and literature contributing to my education. If I find it difficult to see that meaning, how would Paul´s (probably less well educated?) readers be expected to see it that way (even given that they know the context)?

2. Nobody seems to satisfy the problem of both ´she´ and ´they´ in v.15. ´she´ could refer back to ´the woman´ (Eve) in v.14 who ultimately will be saved through the birth of Christ and his redemptive death. But then if ´they´ are Eve´s progeny, how can this fit with the future rendition of the second clause ´if they continue´? Could it be that ´she´ is the same ´she´ as in v.12, which is the woman of v.11 & 12? Then in using ´they´ Paul is just continuing with the his reference to womankind whom he personified in his use of the term ´a woman´ in v.11 & 12. However, then I don´t understand how a woman is ´saved through childbearing´!

3. What about the idea that the use of the terms in v.12 actually implies husband and wife? Apparently the greek used is frequently used in husband/wife passages. That would mean that Paul is referring to a created order of wives being under the authority of their husbands (which is supported in other passages such as Ephesians 5.22). Were the women in Ephesus deceived by false teachers and contradicting their husbands or heckling the church speaker? If the passage has husbands/wives in view, then it could mean that women could teach or be in authority over other men, but not over her husband, to whom she is accountable and must submit (Eph 5.22 If v.21 is part of this teaching it requires an element of mutual submission, but here Paul is also clear who holds the authority, and who also has to be prepared to give up everything for his wife vv.24, 25). From this arises two questions a) Can a married woman hold a position of authority and teach as long as she is under her huband´s authority i.e. a team ministry situation but not a single woman ministry situation? Or, in being married and therefore under her husband´s headship, can a married woman take on any teaching/authority role but must recognise that does not give her authority over her husband, even if he is in the church she is leading/teaching? The story of Deborah (who was married to Lappidoth (Judg 4.4) would point towards the latter. b) What about single women? In Paul´s day, and before, it´s unlikely that single women held positions of authority or taught since by the time they were mature enough to do so they would most likely be married. These days things are different. So, are single women able to teach and have authority over all because they do not usurp their husbands position in doing so, OR are they not allowed to teach or hold authority because they have no husband to whom to be accountable? If the latter, how does this fit with the fact (new revelation?) that many of our great female missionaries have been single??

From this blog, I think the point that Paul is speaking personally not as a church authority when he says ¨I do not...¨, ¨I want..¨ is well made. Is Paul only giving his reasons why he does not permit such things? Then perhaps we could consider them as guidelines - maybe he is right, and there is a created order that ideally we should follow, but maybe sometimes there have to be exceptions (from a women and authority point of view, we see this in various situations in the Bible - Deborah the female judge for example, or the death of Sisera at the hands of a woman). Paul´s attitude could also be seen as time-relevant, when women were largely less well educated than men and more easily deceived? Rather than seeing Paul as chauvinistic, it would be more helpful to try to understand why an educated and inspired man of his calibre has come to these conclusions. Once we start rejecting bits of the Bible because we don´t like them; once we doubt the accuracy of the Bible as a true guide for faith and life, then we get into the foggy world of ´make up your own religion´ where people pick and choose what they want to believe and practice, and it is from such practices (that allows such things as apartheid and the holocaust, torture and genocide) that religion has had its greatest criticism. I think there is room for new revelation, but it has to be consistent with the old revelation too.
By the way, what is a ´Christian pluralist´?

Gem said...

Hey Dud,

I have an e-mail subscription to this comment feed, so I saw your comment and I have one little point which may help you think through this passage with greater clarity. Some English translations muddy the Greek. "childbearing" in verse 15 is not a verb, it is a noun with a definite article.

Here's the Young's Literal Translation: "and she shall be saved through the child-bearing, if they remain in faith, and love, and sanctification, with sobriety." 1 Tim 2:15

Note that travail/childbirth is used as a metaphor for spiritual formation by Paul in Gal 4:19 and by Jesus in John 3:3-8 and John 16:16-25.

Regards,
Gem

Chris said...

Hi Dud,

A Christian pluralist believes that God is revealed and salvifically active in every religion, as evidenced by the fact that members of every religion exhibit the "fruits of the Spirit," often as much or more than evangelical Christians do. The pluralist believes that the apostles' experience of God in Jesus was so powerful that they incorrectly assumed it was the only way of salvation, and that members of the other great religious traditions have made similar assumptions about their own ways of experiencing God. In truth, however, "Everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God [...] because God is love" (1 John 4:7-8).

Best,

-Chris